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#1. Which type of account typically offers tax-deferred growth?

#2. A client is concerned about outliving their money. What product might you suggest?

#3. Which form must be filed to register an investment adviser with the SEC?

#4. Which of the following is considered an alternative investment?

#5. What type of analysis focuses on economic trends?

#6. A bond trading below par is priced at a:

#7. A client receives a capital gain distribution from a mutual fund. This is:

#8. A revocable trust allows the grantor to:

#9. Which document outlines the strategy and risk of a mutual fund?

#10. Which of the following is a tax-advantaged education savings account?

#11. Which is true of municipal bonds?

#12. Who typically regulates securities offerings within each state?

#13. A security with a maturity of less than one year is:

#14. A stop order helps an investor to:

#15. What is the purpose of a mutual fund’s Statement of Additional Information (SAI)?

#16. The duration of a bond measures its:

#17. Which type of retirement account allows for after-tax contributions and tax-free growth?

#18. A high R-squared value indicates:

#19. Which form must be updated if an adviser changes business location?

#20. If an adviser has custody of client funds, they must:

#21. Which of the following is an equity security?

#22. What does the term ‘fiduciary’ imply?

#23. Which investment is best for liquidity and capital preservation?

#24. What kind of fund does not trade intraday?

#25. A 1035 exchange refers to:

#26. Which investment is subject to AMT?

#27. If a client wants capital appreciation, they should invest in:

#28. A high expense ratio in a mutual fund may indicate:

#29. Who must approve changes to a mutual fund’s investment objective?

#30. Which account allows for contributions regardless of income?

#31. What is one benefit of a zero-coupon bond?

#32. Which of the following is a leading indicator?

#33. An investor concerned about reinvestment risk should avoid:

#34. Which investment allows tax-free distributions for qualified expenses?

#35. A REIT is required to distribute what percent of its taxable income?

#36. What is a primary use of duration?

#37. What is the purpose of diversification?

#38. Which type of analysis uses price patterns and volume?

#39. What is alpha in investment terms?

#40. A client’s time horizon is short. You should recommend:

#41. Which of these has the highest default risk?

#42. A balanced mutual fund contains:

#43. Which document is required before a security can be offered to the public?

#44. An investor seeking tax deductions should consider:

#45. Which strategy would best manage interest rate risk?

#46. A fund with a beta greater than 1 is:

#47. An adviser charges performance-based fees. They must:

#48. The SEC requires investment advisers to maintain records for:

#49. What’s the main goal of asset allocation?

#50. Which of the following best defines a benchmark index?

#51. An investor in the accumulation phase is most focused on:

#52. Which of the following is not a fiduciary duty?

#53. Which security is most impacted by inflation risk?

#54. Which act regulates investment advisers?

#55. A client in a high tax bracket is seeking income. Which is most appropriate?

#56. A limited partner is liable for:

#57. Which of the following is a tax-advantaged retirement plan for nonprofit employees?

#58. An investor wants to hedge against market downturns. Which strategy is suitable?

#59. What is the benefit of a Roth IRA over a Traditional IRA?

#60. Which of the following trades at NAV only once daily?

#61. The term ‘bid-ask spread’ refers to:

#62. Which ratio best measures a company’s ability to meet short-term obligations?

#63. An equity REIT primarily invests in:

#64. If a bond is downgraded by a credit agency, its price will likely:

#65. An aggressive investor is least likely to invest in:

#66. Which retirement plan has mandatory distributions at age 73?

#67. An ETF differs from a mutual fund in that:

#68. A client wants to avoid probate. Which is most appropriate?

#69. A fund with a high turnover rate might create:

#70. Which of the following is a non-qualified plan?

#71. Which order executes at the best available price?

#72. An investor using bottom-up analysis begins with:

#73. A firm that pools investor money and actively manages a portfolio is a:

#74. The SEC requires a Form ADV update:

#75. A wash sale rule prohibits claiming a loss if:

#76. Which of the following is an example of a soft dollar benefit?

#77. A client wants capital preservation and principal safety. Recommend:

#78. If an IA receives discretion, they must obtain:

#79. The formula for current yield on a bond is:

#80. Which of these is subject to reinvestment risk?

#81. A stop-limit order becomes active when:

#82. Which of the following is not a money market instrument?

#83. A growth fund primarily invests in:

#84. An investor can reduce systematic risk by:

#85. A ‘no-load’ fund means:

#86. Which entity regulates IAs with >$110 million AUM?

#87. Which ratio is most useful to value a growth company?

#88. Which financial statement shows assets and liabilities?

#89. Which of the following is a disadvantage of ETFs?

#90. An investor wants tax-deferred growth and no RMDs. Recommend:

#91. Which is true of a limited partnership?

#92. Who can contribute to a Coverdell ESA?

#93. A flat yield curve suggests:

#94. What is beta used to measure?

#95. A back-end load on a mutual fund is charged:

#96. Which of the following indicates operating efficiency?

#97. A qualified plan must meet IRS rules and:

#98. Which of the following is a characteristic of closed-end funds?

#99. What type of risk is most associated with foreign investing?

#100. An investor interested in capital gains and not income should buy:

#101. Which entity enforces securities laws in the U.S.?

#102. Which of the following is NOT considered a qualified retirement plan?

#103. Which feature is unique to zero-coupon bonds?

#104. Which form reports adviser disciplinary disclosures?

#105. What is a bond’s coupon rate?

#106. A portfolio with low beta is expected to:

#107. Which of these is a benefit of dollar-cost averaging?

#108. Which type of investment pays income but not ownership?

#109. What does the quick ratio exclude?

#110. A fiduciary must always:

#111. What is the NAV of a mutual fund?

#112. Which of the following strategies is used to limit losses?

#113. Who benefits most from a rising interest rate environment?

#114. A bond’s price will increase when:

#115. Which retirement account allows employer-only contributions?

#116. Which of the following is a lagging indicator?

#117. Which option strategy limits upside and provides income?

#118. A 12b-1 fee is charged by mutual funds to cover:

#119. What is the primary benefit of an HSA?

#120. The investment policy statement (IPS) typically includes:

#121. Which product offers both insurance and investment components?

#122. What happens to bond duration when interest rates rise?

#123. Which of the following is not subject to market risk?

#124. An investor concerned with estate planning and avoiding probate may use:

#125. The time value of money assumes:

#126. Which type of income is most commonly taxed at capital gains rates?

#127. What is one advantage of a convertible bond?

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